CompTIA Network+ N10-009

Practice Questions

Part 1

Credit to https://www.examcompass.com/

  1. Which of the following terms refers to the OSI Network Layer?

    • Layer 1
    • Layer 2
    • Layer 3
    • Layer 4
    • Layer 5
    • Layer 6
    • Layer 7

  2. What type of equipment resides at Layer 1 of the OSI model? (Select all that apply)

    • Hub
    • Network Cabling
    • Repeater
    • Switch
    • Router

  3. Examples of common protocols that reside at the OSI Transport Layer include: (Select 2 answers)

    • UDP
    • IP
    • HTTPS
    • ICMP
    • TCP
    • ARP

  4. Which of the answers listed below refers to a unique, 48-bit identifier also known as physical network address?

    • SSID
    • IP
    • GUID
    • MAC

  5. Which of the following devices reside(s) at the Data Link Layer of the OSI model? (Select all that apply)

    • Bridge
    • Media converter
    • Switch
    • Hub
    • Network adapter

  6. The term “Presentation Layer” is used in reference to:

    • Layer 7 of the OSI model
    • Layer 5 of the OSI model
    • Layer 6 of the OSI model
    • Layer 4 of the OSI model

  7. In the OSI model, the protocol data unit at the Physical Layer is known as:

    • Segment
    • Frame
    • Bit
    • Packet
    • Datagram

  8. Which OSI layer assumes the responsibility for opening, closing, and maintaining connections between applications?

    • Network Layer
    • Data Link Layer
    • Application Layer
    • Session Layer

  9. Which of the devices listed below is often referred to as a multilayer switch?

    • Router
    • Media converter
    • Bridge
    • Transceiver

  10. Which of the following protocols reside at the Application Layer of the OSI model? (Select 3 answers)

    • ARP
    • HTTP
    • FTP
    • IP
    • SMTP
    • TCP/UDP

  11. In the OSI model, the Data Link Layer is also known as:

    • Layer 3
    • Layer 5
    • layer 1
    • Layer 2

  12. Which of the answers listed below refer to common network protocols that reside at Layer 3 of the OSI model? (Select 2 answers)

    • ICMP
    • SIP
    • IP
    • ARP
    • SNMP

  13. In the OSI model, the Layer 4 UDP protocol data unit is called:

    • Bit
    • Frame
    • Packet
    • Segment
    • Datagram

  14. Layer 2 of the OSI model is also referred to as:

    • Transport Layer
    • Network Layer
    • Data Link Layer
    • Physical Layer

  15. Data format translation, data compression, and data encryption/decryption take place at the:

    • Application Layer of the OSI model
    • Presentation Layer of the OSI model
    • Session Layer of the OSI model
    • Transport Layer of the OSI model

  16. Which of the following answers refers to Layer 1 of the OSI model?

    • Transport Layer
    • Physical Layer
    • Application Layer
    • Data Link Layer

  17. The term “Application Layer” is used in reference to:

    • Layer 6 of the OSI model
    • Layer 4 of the OSI model
    • Layer 7 of the OSI model
    • Layer 5 of the OSI model

  18. In the OSI reference model, a NIC resides at the:

    • Physical Layer
    • Data Link Layer
    • Network Layer
    • Transport Layer

  19. Which of the OSI layers listed below is also known as the Session Layer?

    • Layer 6
    • Layer 3
    • Layer 5
    • Layer 2

  20. Which of the following devices resides at the Network Layer of the OSI model?

    • Switch
    • Repeater
    • Bridge
    • Router

  21. In the OSI model, the Layer 2 protocol data unit is known as:

    • Bit
    • Frame
    • Packet
    • Segment
    • Datagram

  22. Which OSI layer enables direct interaction between the end-user and the network?

    • Layer 5
    • Layer 1
    • Layer 7
    • Layer 3

  23. In the OSI model, the Network Layer protocol data unit is called:

    • Bit
    • Frame
    • Packet
    • Segment
    • Datagram

  24. Which of the answers listed below refers to a common OSI Layer 2 protocol?

    • HTTP
    • IP
    • ARP
    • ICMP

  25. Which of the following answers refers to Layer 6 of the OSI model?

    • Data Link Layer
    • Application Layer
    • Presentation Layer
    • Session Layer

Part 2

Credit to https://www.examcompass.com/

  1. In the context of the OSI model, the term “Data encapsulation” is used to describe a process where each layer of the OSI model adds its own control information to the original data that is being passed across the layers from the Physical Layer up to the Application Layer.

    • True
    • False

  2. In the OSI model, the Layer 4 TCP protocol data unit is referred to as:

    • Bit
    • Frame
    • Packet
    • Sagment
    • Datagram

  3. Which of the answers listed below refers to the Physical Layer of the OSI model?

    • Layer 2
    • Layer 7
    • Layer 1
    • Layer 4

  4. Layer 7 of the OSI model is also known as:

    • Transporation Layer
    • Presentation Layer
    • Session Layer
    • Application Layer

  5. At which OSI layers is the protocol data unit referred to simply as data? (Select 3 answers)

    • Application
    • Presentation
    • Session
    • Transport
    • Network
    • Data Link
    • Physical

  6. Which of the following answers refers to Layer 5 of the OSI model?

    • Session Layer
    • Application Layer
    • Transport Layer
    • Presentation Layer

  7. What is the name of Layer 3 in the OSI model?

    • Network Layer
    • Data Link Layer
    • Session Layer
    • Transport Layer

  8. Which of the answers listed below refers to Layer 4 of the OSI model?

    • Network Layer
    • Data Link Layer
    • Session Layer
    • Transport Layer

  9. Which of the following answers describe the characteristics of a router? (Select 3 answers)

    • Operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model
    • Connects Multiple Networks Together
    • Uses MAC Addresses to forward data frames to the correct port
    • Operates at Layer 3 of the OSI model
    • Uses IP addresses to send data packets to their detination
    • Connects Multiple Devices with a single network

  10. Which of the answers listed below refer to a network switch? (Select 3 answers)

    • Connects multiple devices within a single network
    • Operates at Layer 3 of the OSI model
    • Uses MAC addresses to forward data frames to the correct port
    • Connects multiple networks together
    • Operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model
    • Uses IP addresses to send data packets to their destination

  11. Which of the following answers refers to a hardware security device or software that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules?

    • Proxy server
    • Vulnerability scanner
    • Firewall
    • Content filter

  12. Which of the answers listed below illustrates the difference between passive and active network security breach response?

    • NIPS vs. UTM
    • IDS vs. IPS
    • UTM vs. Firewall
    • HIPS vs. NIPS

  13. Which of the following answers can be used to describe the characteristic features of an IDS? (Select 3 answers)

    • Takes proactive measures to block or mitigate intrusion attempts
    • Does not take direct action to block or prevent attacks
    • Generates alerts and notifies security personnel or administrators when suspicious activity is detected
    • Monitors network traffic without direct involvement in traffic routing or packet modification
    • Can drop or reject network packets, terminate connections, or take other actions to stop the attack
    • Operates in an inline mode, actively intercepting and inspecting network traffic

  14. Which of the answers listed below refer to an IPS? (Select 3 answers)

    • Takes proactive measures to block or mitigate intrusion attempts
    • Generates alerts and notifies security personnel or administrators when suspicious activity is detected
    • Operates in an inline mode, actively intercepting and inspecting network traffic
    • Monitors network traffic without direct involvement in traffic routing or packet modification
    • Does not take direct action to block or prevent attacks
    • Can drop or reject network packets, terminate connections, or take other actions to stop the attack
    • [ ]

  15. A network hardware or software solution designed for managing the optimal distribution of workloads across multiple computing resources is called:

    • Network switch
    • Load balancer
    • Proxy server
    • Bandwidth manager

  16. In computer networking, a computer system or an application that acts as an intermediary between another computer and the Internet is commonly referred to as:

    • Bridge
    • Proxy
    • Server
    • Gateway

  17. A dedicated storage appliance that can be added to a local network is known as:

    • SAN
    • NAS
    • SSD
    • DAS

  18. A dedicated local network consisting of devices providing data access is called:

    • SDN
    • NAS
    • iSCSI
    • SAN

  19. A WAP is a specific type of AP that allows Wi-Fi capable devices to connect to a wired network.

    • True
    • False

  20. Which network infrastructure device enables centralized management of WAPs?

    • Multilayer switch
    • Active hub
    • Network bridge
    • Wireless LAN controller

  21. One of the key benefits provided by a CDN is the improvement of:

    • Content load times
    • Host security
    • User management process
    • Network storage capacity

  22. A system that uses public network (such as the Internet) as a means for creating private encrypted connections between remote locations is referred to as:

    • WWAN
    • VPN
    • PAN
    • VLAN

  23. Which of the following answers refers to a solution that allows network administrators to prioritize certain types of network traffic?

    • NAC
    • QoS
    • NAT
    • UTM

  24. A field in an IP packet that specifies how many more hops a packet can travel before being discarded is known as:

    • ToS
    • OPT
    • TTL
    • MTU

  25. Which of the answers listed below refers to a solution that enables the replacement of traditional network hardware functionalities with software via virtualization?

    • SDN
    • VM
    • SVI
    • NFV

Part 3

  1. Which of the following terms can be used to describe an isolated network area hosted within a public cloud environment?

    • VPC
    • Private cloud
    • VXLAN
    • Intranet

  2. Which of the answers listed below can be used to describe the concept of a Network Security Group (NSG)? (Select 3 answers)

    • Primarily used in traditional/non-virtualized network environments
    • Detects or prevents intrusion attempts or malicious activities within the network traffic
    • Provides firewall-like capabilities
    • Applies security rules to specific virtual NICs (more granular control)
    • Used for controlling inbound and outbound traffic in cloud computing environments
    • Applies security rules at the subnet level (less granular control)

  3. Which of the following answers refer to the characteristics of a Network Security List (NSL)?

    • Provides firewall-like capabilities
    • Applies security rules at the subnet level (less granular control)
    • Used for controlling inbound and outbound traffic in cloud computing environments
    • Applies security rules to specific virtual NICs (more granular control)
    • Primarily used in traditional/non-virtualized network environments
    • Detects or prevents intrusion attempts or malicious activities within the network traffic

  4. A type of network gateway that allows instances within a cloud environment to send and receive unencrypted traffic to and from the Internet is called:

    • NAT gateway
    • Internet gateway
    • VPN gateway
    • Default gateway

  5. Which of the statements listed below describe the functions of a cloud gateway using NAT? (Select 3 answers)

    • Enables instances within a VPC to access external networks
    • Translates private IP addresses to a public IP address
    • Restricts inbound connections from external networks
    • Translates public IP addresses to a private IP address
    • Enables inbound connections from external networks
    • Prevents instances within a VPC from accessing external networks

  6. Which network connectivity option enables a secure, encrypted Internet connection between an on-premises network and cloud resources?

    • SSH
    • IPsec
    • SSL/TLS
    • VPN

  7. Which cloud connectivity option provides a dedicated, private connection between an on-premises network and a cloud provider?

    • Direct Connect
    • VPN
    • Leased line
    • Fibre Channel

  8. Which of the following answers refers to a cloud deployment model where computing resources (such as servers, storage, and applications) are owned and operated by a third-party cloud service provider and shared across multiple organizations or tenants?

    • Hybrid cloud
    • Private cloud
    • Community cloud
    • Public cloud

  9. A type of cloud deployment model where cloud resources are used exclusively by a single organization is referred to as:

    • Public cloud
    • Community cloud
    • Hybrid cloud
    • Private cloud

  10. A hybrid cloud is a cloud computing environment that combines elements of both public and private clouds

    • True
    • False

  11. A cloud computing service model that provides remote access to software applications based on a subscription fee is known as:

    • PaaS
    • SaaS
    • IaaS
    • DaaS

  12. Which of the answers listed below refers to a cloud computing service model where clients, instead of buying hardware and software, purchase computing resources as an outsourced service from suppliers who own and maintain all the necessary equipment and software?

    • SaaS
    • DaaS
    • PaaS
    • IaaS

  13. Which cloud computing service model would provide the best solution for a web developer intending to create a web app?

    • DaaS
    • SaaS
    • PaaS
    • IaaS

  14. Which of the following terms refers to the ability of a system to handle increased load by gradually adding resources, such as additional servers or storage, in a planned and deliberate manner over time?

    • Rapid elasticity
    • Scalability
    • Fault tolerance
    • High availability

  15. Which of the terms listed below refers to the automatic and dynamic adjustment of resources based on real-time demand changes?

    • Rapid elasticity
    • Adaptive computing
    • Load balancing
    • Resource pooling

  16. Which of the following terms refers to a software architecture where multiple users, each with their own isolated environment and resources, are served by a single application instance?

    • Virtualization
    • Multitenancy
    • Sandboxing
    • Containerization

  17. What is the function of FTP?

    • Email service
    • Directory access
    • Serving of web pages
    • File exchange

  18. Which of the answers listed below refers to a network protocol for secure file transfer over SSH?

    • TFTP
    • SFTP
    • Telnet
    • FTPS

  19. A type of cryptographic network protocol for secure data communication, remote command-line login, remote command execution, and other secure network services between two networked computers is called:

    • TFTP
    • SSH
    • Telnet
    • RDP

  20. Telnet

    • Encrypts network connection
    • Provides username & password authentication
    • Transmits data in an unencrypted form
    • Does not provide authentication
    • Enables remote login and command execution

  21. Which of the following answers refers to a secure replacement for Telnet?

    • SSH
    • Rlogin
    • rsh
    • SNMP

  22. The SMTP protocol is used for: (Select 2 answers)

    • Sending email messages between mail servers
    • Name resolution services
    • Serving of web pages
    • Retrieving email messages from mail servers
    • Sending email messages from a client device

  23. Which of the answers listed below refers to a system containing mappings of domain names to various types of data, such as numerical IP addresses?

    • DHCP
    • ARP
    • WINS
    • DNS

  24. Which of the following network protocols provides an alternative solution to the manual allocation of IP addresses?

    • APIPA
    • NAT
    • DHCP
    • Zeroconf

  25. What are the characteristic features of TFTP? (Select 2 answers)

    • Provides no security features
    • Typically used for exchanging files over the Internet
    • A very basic form of file sharing protocol
    • Provides authentication and encryption
    • Directory access protocol